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Aaron Turner's avatar

I'm struggling to see how it can be legally possible (never mind moral) to take people's money on the basis of X and then do Y. In the UK, that used to be called "obtaining pecuniary advantage by deception" [https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Obtaining_pecuniary_advantage_by_deception], but now it's simply called "fraud". Prior to 2019, OpenAI accepted donations (a pecuniary advantage), and hired researchers at lower than market value salaries (also a pecuniary advantage), on the basis that it was a non-profit company, but has since transitioned into a for-profit. How this is not obtaining pecuniary advantage by deception (i.e. fraud) I simply don't know. What am I missing?

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Amy A's avatar

Absolutely something people should be discussing….

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